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RE: Is "A != B" equivalent to "not(A = B)"?


> I've got a stylesheet that produces different results depending on 
> whether I use "A != B" or "not(A = B)"?  Is this supposed to happen?  
> Can someone explain why?  It's not very intuitive.

When A and B are node-sets, 

  A != B 
means
  some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a != $b

while
  not( A = B )
means
  not( some $a in A, $b in B satisfies $a = $b )

(the expansions, by the way, are legal XPath 2.0 expressions)

Michael Kay
Software AG
home: Michael.H.Kay@ntlworld.com
work: Michael.Kay@softwareag.com 
 

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